STRAIGHTERLINE-ENG-102| ENGLISH-COMPOSITION-II |FULL COURSE (CONTAINS ALL QUIZZES WITH CORRECT ANSWER

Full Answer Key/Test Bank to W.D. Mounce, Basics of Biblical Greek: Workbook 2009 EDITION BY John C. Beckman . DOWNLOAD on www.hackedexams.com INSTANTLY.

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STRAIGHTERLINE-ENG-102| ENGLISH-COMPOSITION-II |FULL COURSE (CONTAINS ALL QUIZZES WITH CORRECT ANSWER NGRK 520 Full Answer Key to W.D. Mounce, Basics of Biblical Greek: Workbook 2020 ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OPENSTAX TEST BANK FULL TESTBANK WITH ANSWER KEY Biology 252 Exam II 2024. A Complete Question And Answer Full Exam VERIFIED EXAM GCSE GEOGRAPHY 8035/1 Paper 1 Living With The Physical Environment Mark scheme June 2021 Version: 1.0 Final Mark Scheme *216G8035/1/MS* AQA GEOGRAPHY PAPER 1 2021 MARK SCHEME – GCSE GEOGRAPHY – 8035/1 – JUNE 2021 2 Mark schemes are prepared by the Lead Assessment Writer and considered, together with the relevant questions, by a panel of subject teachers. This mark scheme includes any amendments made at the standardisation events which all associates participate in and is the scheme which was used by them in this examination. The standardisation process ensures that the mark scheme covers the students’ responses to questions and that every associate understands and applies it in the same correct way. As preparation for standardisation each associate analyses a number of students’ scripts. Alternative answers not already covered by the mark scheme are discussed and legislated for. If, after the standardisation process, associates encounter unusual answers which have not been raised they are required to refer these to the Lead Examiner. It must be stressed that a mark scheme is a working document, in many cases further developed and expanded on the basis of students’ reactions to a particular paper. Assumptions about future mark schemes on the basis of one year’s document should be avoided; whilst the guiding principles of assessment remain constant, details will change, depending on the content of a particular examination paper. Further copies of this mark scheme are available from aqa.org.uk Copyright information AQA retains the copyright on all its publications. However, registered schools/colleges for AQA are permitted to copy material from this booklet for their own internal use, with the following important exception: AQA cannot give permission to schools/colleges to photocopy any material that is acknowledged to a third party even for internal use within the centre. Copyright © 2021 AQA and its licensors. All rights reserved. MARK SCHEME – GCSE GEOGRAPHY – 8035/1 – JUNE 2021 3 Point marked questions marking instructions The mark scheme will state the correct answer or a range of possible answers, although these may not be exhaustive. It may indicate how a second mark is awarded for a second point or developed idea. It may give an indication of unacceptable answers. Each mark should be shown by placing a tick where credit is given. The number of ticks must equal the mark awarded. Do not use crosses to indicate answers that are incorrect. Level of response marking instructions Level of response mark schemes are broken down into levels, each of which has a descriptor. The descriptor is linked to the assessment objective(s) being addressed. The descriptor for the level shows the average performance for the level. Before you apply the mark scheme to a student’s answer read through the answer and annotate it (as instructed) to show the qualities that are being looked for. You can then apply the mark scheme. You should read the whole answer before awarding marks on level of response questions. Step 1 Determine a level Descriptors for the level indicate the different qualities that might be seen in the student’s answer for that level. When assigning a level you should look at the overall quality of the answer and not look to pick holes in small and specific parts of the answer where the student has not performed quite as well as the rest. If the answer covers different aspects of different levels of the mark scheme you should use a best fit approach for defining the level and then use the variability of the response to help decide the mark within the level, ie if the response is predominantly Level 2 with a small amount of Level 3 material it would be placed in Level 2 but be awarded a mark near the top of the level because of the Level 3 content. For instance, in a 9 mark question with three levels of response, an answer may demonstrate thorough knowledge and understanding (AO1 and AO2) but fail to respond to command words such as assess or evaluate (AO3). The script could still access Level 2 marks. Note that the mark scheme is not progressive in the sense that students don’t have to fulfil all the requirements of Level 1 in order to access Level 2. Step 2 Determine a mark Once you have assigned a level you need to decide on the mark. The descriptors on how to allocate marks can help with this. The exemplar materials used during standardisation will also help. There will generally be an answer in the standardising materials which will correspond with each level of the mark scheme. This answer will have been awarded a mark by the Lead Examiner. You can compare the student’s answer with the example to determine if it is the same standard, better or worse than the example. You can then use this to allocate a mark for the answer based on the Lead Examiner’s mark on the example. You may well need to read back through the answer as you apply the mark scheme to clarify points and assure yourself that the level and the mark are appropriate. Indicative content in the mark scheme is provided as a guide for examiners. It is not intended to be exhaustive and you must credit other valid points. Students do not have to cover all of the points mentioned in the indicative content to reach the highest level of the mark scheme. An answer which contains nothing of relevance to the question must be awarded no marks. MARK SCHEME – GCSE GEOGRAPHY – 8035/1 – JUNE 2021 4 Assessment of spelling, punctuation, grammar and use of specialist terminology (SPaG) Accuracy of spelling, punctuation, grammar and the use of specialist terminology will be assessed via the indicated 9 mark questions. In each of these questions, three marks are allocated for SPaG as follows: • High performance – 3 marks • Intermediate performance – 2 marks • Threshold performance – 1 mark General guidance • Mark schemes should be applied positively. Examiners should look for qualities to reward rather than faults to penalise. They are looking to find credit in each response they mark. Unless the mark scheme specifically states, candidates must never lose marks for incorrect answers. • The full range of marks should be used. Examiners should always award full marks if deserved, ie if the answer matches the mark scheme. • When examiners are in doubt regarding the application of the mark scheme to a candidate’s response, the team leader must be consulted. • Crossed out work should be marked unless the candidate has replaced it with an alternative response. • Do NOT add ticks to level-marked questions – use the highlight tool/brackets to signify what is relevant. • Sometimes there are specific “triggers” in the mark scheme that enable higher level marks to be awarded. For instance, an example or case study may be required for Level 3 if it is stated within the question. • Where a source, such as a photograph or map, is provided as a stimulus it should be used if requested in the question, but credit can often be given for inferred as well as direct use of the source. • Always be consistent – accept the guidelines given in the mark scheme and apply them to every script. • If necessary make comments to support the level awarded and to help clarify a decision you have made. • Examiners should revisit standardised script answers as they apply the mark scheme in order to confirm that the level and the mark allocated is appropriate to the response provided. • Mark all answers written on the examination paper. MARK SCHEME – GCSE GEOGRAPHY – 8035/1 – JUNE 2021 5 Section A Qu Pt Marking guidance Total marks 01 1 Using Figure 1, which natural disaster caused the greatest number of deaths? Earthquake. AO4 – 1 mark 1 01 2 Using Figure 1, which one of the following statements is true? One mark for correct answer: C The two heatwaves in Central Europe and Russia resulted in 126 000 deaths. No credit if two or more answers are circled. AO4 – 1 mark 1 01 3 Explain how living in areas that are at risk from tectonic hazard(s) may have both advantages and disadvantages. Level Marks Description 3 (Detailed) 5–6 AO1 Demonstrates detailed knowledge of the advantages and disadvantages of living in areas a Mrs. Quinn recently turned 66 and decided after many years of work to begin receiving Social Security benefits. Shortly thereafter Mrs. Quinn received a letter informing her that she has been automatically enrolled in Medicare Part B. She wants to understand what this means. What should you tell Mrs. Quinn? - ANSWER Part B primarily covers physician services. She will be paying a monthly premium and, with the exception of many preventive and screening tests, generally will have 20% coinsurance for these services, in addition to an annual deductible. Mrs. Turner is comparing her employer's retiree insurance to Original Medicare and would like to know which of the following services Original Medicare will cover if the appropriate criteria are met? What could you tell her? - ANSWER Original Medicare covers ambulance services. Mr. Diaz continued working with his company and was insured under his employer's group plan until he reached age 68. He has heard that there is a premium penalty for those who did not sign up for Part B when first eligible and wants to know how much he will have to pay. What should you tell him? - ANSWER Mr. Diaz will not pay any penalty because he had continuous coverage under his employer's plan. Anita Magri will turn age 65 in August 2020. Anita intends to enroll in Original Medicare Part A and Part B. She would also like to enroll in a Medicare Supplement (Medigap) plan. Anita's older neighbor Mel has told her about the Medigap Part F plan in which he is enrolled. It not only provides foreign travel emergency benefits but also covers his Medicare Part B deductible. Anita comes to you for advice. What should you tell her? - ANSWER You are sorry to disappoint Anita but a Medigap Part F plan is no longer available to those who turn age 65 after January 1,2020. Anita might instead consider other Medigap plans that offer foreign travel benefits but do not cover the Part B deductible. Mr. Moy's wife has a Medicare Advantage plan, but he wants to understand what coverage Medicare Supplemental Insurance provides since his health care needs are different from his wife's needs. What could you tell Mr. Moy? - ANSWER Medicare Supplemental Insurance would help cover his Part A and Part B cost sharing in Original Fee-for-Service (FFS) Medicare as well as possibly some services that Medicare does not cover. Mr. Bauer is 49 years old, but eighteen months ago he was declared disabled by the Social Security Administration and has been receiving disability payments. He is wondering whether he can obtain coverage under Medicare. What should you tell him? - ANSWER After receiving such disability payments for 24 months, he will be automatically enrolled in Medicare, regardless of age. Mr. Schmidt would like to plan for retirement and has asked you what is covered under Original Fee-for-Service (FFS) Medicare? What could you tell him? - ANSWER Part A, which covers hospital, skilled nursing facility, hospice, and home health services and Part B, which covers professional services such as those provided by a doctor are covered under Original Medicare. Ms. Moore plans to retire when she turns 65 in a few months. She is in excellent health and will have considerable income when she retires. She is concerned that her income will make it impossible for her to qualify for Medicare. What could you tell her to address her concern? - ANSWER Medicare is a program for people age 65 or older and those under age 65 with certain disabilities, end-stage renal disease, and Lou Gehrig's disease so she will be eligible for Medicare. Mrs. Shields is covered by Original Medicare. She sustained a hip fracture and is being successfully treated for that condition. However, she and her physicians feel that after her lengthy hospital stay she will need a month or two of nursing and rehabilitative care. What should you tell them about Original Medicare's coverage of care in a skilled nursing facility? - ANSWER Medicare will cover Mrs. Shield's skilled nursing services provided during the first 20 days of her stay, after which she would have a copay until she has been in the facility for 100 days. Mr. Xi will soon turn age 65 and has come to you for advice as to what services are provided under Original Medicare. What should you tell Mr. Xi that best describes the health coverage provided to Medicare beneficiaries? - ANSWER Beneficiaries under Original Medicare have no cost-sharing for most preventive services which include immunizations such as annual flu shots. Mrs. Geisler's neighbor told her she should look at her Part D options during the annual Medicare enrollment period because features of Part D might have changed. Mrs. Geisler can't remember what Part D is so she called you to ask what her neighbor was talking about. What could you tell her? - ANSWER Part D covers prescription drugs and she should look at her premiums, formulary, and cost-sharing among other factors to see if they have changed. What impact, if any, will recent regulatory changes have upon Medigap plans? - ANSWER The Part B deductible will no longer be covered for individuals newly eligible for Medicare starting January 1, 2020. Mr. Wu is eligible for Medicare. He has limited financial resources but failed to qualify for the Part D low-income subsidy. Where might he turn for help with his prescription drug costs? - ANSWER Mr. Wu may still qualify for help in paying Part D costs through his State Pharmaceutical Assistance Program. Madeline Martinez was widowed several years ago. Her husband worked for many years and contributed into the Medicare system. He also left a substantial estate which provides Madeline with an annual income of approximately $130,000. Madeline, who has only worked part-time for the last three years, will soon turn age 65 and hopes to enroll in Original Medicare. She comes to you for advice. What should you tell her? - ANSWER You should tell Madeline that she will be able to enroll in Medicare Part A without paying monthly premiums due to her husband's long work record and participation in the Medicare system. You should also tell Madeline that she will pay Part B premiums at more than the standard lowest rate but less than the highest rate due her substantial income. Agent John Miller is meeting with Jerry Smith, a new prospect. Jerry is currently enrolled in Medicare Parts A and B. Jerry has also purchased a Medicare Supplement (Medigap) plan which he has had for several years. However, the plan does not provide drug benefits. How would you advise Agent John Miller to proceed? - ANSWER Tell prospect Jerry Smith that he should consider adding a standalone Part D prescription drug coverage policy to his present coverage. Mrs. Paterson is concerned about the deductibles and co-payments associated with Original Medicare. What can you tell her about Medigap as an option to address this concern? - ANSWER Medigap plans help beneficiaries cover coinsurance, co-payments, and/or deductibles for medically necessary services Mr. Davis is 52 years old and has recently been diagnosed with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) and will soon begin dialysis. He is wondering if he can obtain coverage under Medicare. What should you tell him? - ANSWER He may sign-up for Medicare at any time however coverage usually begins on the fourth month after dialysis treatments start. Mrs. Chen will be 65 soon, has been a citizen for twelve years, has been employed full time, and paid taxes during that entire period. She is concerned that she will not qualify for coverage under part A because she was not born in the United States. What should you tell her? - ANSWER Most individuals who are citizens and age 65 or over are covered under Part A by virtue of having paid Medicare taxes while working, though some may be covered as a result of paying monthly premiums. Mr. Singh would like drug coverage but does not want to be enrolled in a Medicare Advantage plan. What should you tell him? - ANSWER Mr. Singh can enroll in a stand-alone prescription drug plan and continue to be covered for Part A and Part B services through Original Fee-for-Service Medicare. Juan Perez, who is turning age 65 next month, intends to work for several more years at Smallcap, Incorporated. Smallcap has a workforce of 15 employees and offers employer-sponsored healthcare coverage. Juan is a naturalized citizen and has contributed to the Medicare system for over 20 years. Juan asks you if he will be entitled to Medicare and if he enrolls how that will impact his employer-sponsored healthcare coverage. How would you respond? - ANSWER Juan is likely to be eligible for Medicare once he turns age 65 and if he enrolls Medicare would become the primary payor of his healthcare claims and Smallcap does not h SUSTAINABILITY AND CLIMATE RISK- GARP SCR – ( 100% CORRECT ANSWER KEY AND WITH FULL EXPLANATION) Please copy your question & search in this file, All questions of exam you can find here. if you feel any question is not there, then don’t copy full questions, just copy & paste small part of question you will get the answer. AAPC CPC FINAL EXAM | QUESTIONS WITH FULL ANSWER KEY & RATIONALE Cognitive Level: Application Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment Nursing Process: Assessment 3. The nurse is caring for four clients on a medical–surgical unit. The secretary gives the nurse the morning labs. Which of the following labs would require that the nurse call the physician and inform the healthcare provider about the client’s abnormalities? 1. WBC 14,600 mm3 2. Serum protein 6.9 g/dL 3. I & D (incision and drainage) showing no growth for the last 24 hours 4. Albumin 4.2 g/dL Answer: 1 Rationale: When the nurse is caring for several clients, all of the labs should be checked frequently throughout the shift to assess for any abnormalities. The WBC in option 1 is abnormal. (Normal WBC 4,000–10,000 mm3 .) All of the other lab results are within acceptable range; therefore, the results should not be called in to the physician. Cognitive Level: Application Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity Nursing Process: Assessment 4. The nurse is orienting a new graduate. The nurse is reinforcing the importance of standard precautions. Which of the following observations by the nurse would require further education regarding standard precautions? 1. The graduate nurse understands to wash hands when entering and exiting the client’s room. 2. The graduate nurse wears gloves when serving breakfast trays to various clients. 3. The graduate nurse wears a gown, gloves, and goggles when suctioning a client. 4. The graduate nurse leaves all supplies in the room of a client who is in contact isolation. Answer: 2 Rationale: The nurse must have an understanding of standard precautions. Prevention is the most important measure to prevent nosocomial infections. Standard precautions were published in 1996 that provide guidelines for the handling of download full file at http://testbankinstant.com blood and other body fluids. These guidelines are used with all clients, regardless of whether they have a known infectious disease. Standard precautions are used by all healthcare workers who have direct contact with clients or with their body fluids. It is not necessary for the nurse to wear gloves while delivering food trays to the client, because there is not contact with the client. Cognitive Level: Application Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment Nursing Process: Evaluation 5. The admitting department alerts the nurse on a medical–surgical unit that a client with active tuberculosis (TB) is being admitted to the unit. Which type of isolation is appropriate based on the client’s diagnosis? 1. Standard precautions 2. Airborne precautions 3. Droplet precautions 4. Contact precautions Answer: 2 In addition to handwashing and standard precautions, the nature and spread of some infectious diseases require that special techniques be used to protect uninfected clients and workers. The client with pulmonary tuberculosis will be placed in airborne precautions. The client should be placed in a private room with special ventilation that does not allow air to circulate to general hospital ventilation; a mask or special filter respirators will be used for everyone entering the room. Cognitive Level: Application Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment Nursing Process: Assessment 6. A client is receiving IV vancomycin for the treatment of Clostridium difficile. The nurse understands that the client who develops flushing, tachycardia, and hypotension during the infusion of vancomycin indicates: 1. Ototoxicity effect. 2. Superinfection. 3. Red man syndrome. 4. Hives. Answer: 3 download full file at http://testbankinstant.com Rationale: Vancomycin inhibits cell wall synthesis, and is used for serious infections. It is only effective against gram-positive bacteria, especially Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis. The nurse should infuse this medication slowly over 60 minutes or more to avoid “red man” syndrome. The syndrome is characterized by erythematous rash, flushing, tachycardia, and hypotension. Clients can become dizzy and agitated. Cognitive Level: Application Client Needs: Physiological Integrity Nursing Process: Evaluation 7. The physician has ordered for the client to receive a trough blood level to evaluate the therapeutic effect of an antibiotic. The nurse understands that the trough should be ordered: 1. A few minutes before the next scheduled dose of medication. 2. 1–2 hours after the oral administration of the medication. 3. 30 minutes after the IV administration. 4. During the infusion of the antibiotic. Answer: 1 Rationale: Antibiotic peak and trough levels monitor therapeutic blood levels of the prescribed medication. The therapeutic range—the minimum and maximum blood levels at which the drug is effective—is known for a given drug. By measuring blood levels at the predicted peak (1–2 hours after oral administration, 1 hour after intramuscular administration, and 30 minutes after IV administration) and trough (usually a few minutes before the next scheduled dose), it is also possible to determine whether the drug is reaching a toxic or harmful level during therapy, increasing the likelihood of adverse effects. Cognitive Level: Application Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment Nursing Process: Assessment 8. The nurse needs to change a dressing on the client’s abdomen. Which of the following techniques should be implemented? 1. Contact precautions 2. Standard precautions 3. Droplet p

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