Barry preop eval Basics preoperative evaluation | 155 Questions with 100% Correct Answers | Updated | Download to score A | 28 Pages
This resource provides a comprehensive and insightful guide to DCFS-CERAP definitions, offering valuable information on child welfare evaluation intake evaluation. Explore important concepts like severity of behavior, child vulnerability, and mitigation strategies. This resource is perfect for professionals and students in child welfare, social work, and related fields.
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(WOCNCB) CCCN-AP Domain 5 Evaluation Comprehensive Pre - Assessment Guide Q & S 2024 [eBook] [PDF] For A Companion to Literary Evaluation 1st Edition By Richard Bradford, Madelena Gonzalez, Kevin De RN Leadership - Test 2 Questions Solved 100% Correct Which should be assessed first? A. Client w/pneumonia & bilateral crackles. B. Client on bed rest w/calf pain. C. Client w/low back pain when sitting. D. Client who is upset that his food is always cold. {{Correct Ans- B. Client on bed rest w/calf pain. Suspect DVT. Steps of the delegation decision tree. {{Correct Ans- 1. Assessment & planning 2. Communication 3. Surveillance & supervision 4. Evaluation & feedback Which should be priority? A. Change wound dressing for a client who walked in the hall. B. Discuss correct method of obtaining BG level to CNA. C. Check male client who states he just vomited. D. Place a call to the extended care facility to give the report on a discharged client. {{Correct Ans- C. Check male client who states he just vomited. Which med should be administered first? A. Narcotic to the pt w/8 pain rating. B. Loop diuretic to a client diagnosed w/heart failure who has 3 pitting edema. C. An anticholinesterase medication to a client w/myasthenia gravis. D. An antacid to a client w/pyrosis who has called several times. {{Correct Ans- C. An anticholinesterase medication to a client w/myasthenia gravis. Which lab data warrants immediate intervention? A. PTT of 98 seconds w/a control of 36 on a client with DVT. B. H&H of 10.4/31 for a client w/a bleeding gastric ulcer. C. WBC count of 4800 in a client w/leukemia. D. Trygliceride level of 312 in a client w/HTN. {{Correct Ans- A. PTT of 98 seconds w/a control of 36 on a client with DVT 1. Following discharge teaching, a male client with duodenal ulcer tells the nurse the he will drink plenty of dairy products, such as milk, to help coat and protect his ulcer. What is the best follow-up action by the nurse? a- Remind the client that it is also important to switch to decaffeinated coffee and tea. b- Suggest that the client also plan to eat frequent small meals to reduce discomfort c- Review with the client the need to avoid foods that are rich in milk and cream. d- Reinforce this teaching by asking the client to list a dairy food that he might select. 2. A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106 and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him “feel bad”. In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition? a- Blindness secondary to cataracts b- Acute kidney injury due to glomerular damage c- Stroke secondary to hemorrhage d- Heart block due to myocardial damage 3. The nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) positioning a newly admitted client who has a seizure disorder. The client is supine and the UAP is placing soft pillows along the side rails. What action should the nurse implement? a- Ensure that the UAP has placed the pillows effectively to protect the client. b- Instruct the UAP to obtain soft blankets to secure to the side rails instead of pillows. a- Assume responsibility for placing the pillows while the UAP completes another task. b- Ask the UAP to use some of the pillows to prop the client in a side lying position. 4. An adolescent with major depressive disorder has been taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) for the past 12 days. Which assessment finding requires immediate follow-up? a- Describes life without purpose b- Complains of nausea and loss of appetite c- States is often fatigued and drowsy d- Exhibits an increase in sweating. 5. A 60-year-old female client with a positive family history of ovarian cancer has developed an abdominal mass and is being evaluated for possible ovarian cancer. Her Papanicolau (Pap) smear results are negative. What information should the nurse include in the client’s teaching plan? a- Further evaluation involving surgery may be needed b- A pelvic exam is also needed before cancer is ruled out c- Pap smear evaluation should be continued every six month d- One additional negative pap smear in six months is needed. 6. A client who recently underwear a tracheostomy is being prepared for discharge to home. Which instructions is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge plan? a- Explain how to use communication tools. b- Teach tracheal suctioning techniques c- Encourage self-care and independence. d- Demonstrate how to clean tracheostomy site. 7. In assessing an adult client with a partial rebreather mask, the nurse notes that the oxygen reservoir bag does not deflate completely during inspiration and the client’s respiratory rate is 14 breaths / minute. What action should the nurse implement? a- Encourage the client to take deep breaths b- Remove the mask to deflate the bag c- Increase the liter flow of oxygen d- Document the assessment data 8. During a home visit, the nurse observed an elderly client with diabetes slip and fall. What action should the nurse take first? a- Give the client 4 ounces of orange juice b- Call 911 to summon emergency assistance c- Check the client for lacerations or fractures d- Asses clients blood sugar level (Capella) NURS6107 Curriculum Design, Development, Evaluation Comprehensive Exam Guide Q & A 2024 ACQ 101 Module 12 Test & Evaluation Overview 2022/2023 with Complete Solution Barry preop eval Basics preoperative evaluation | 155 Questions with 100% Correct Answers | Updated | Download to score A | 28 Pages 60 requires further evaluation)  Toddlers (1-2 yrs): 22-37 bpm (RR Cognitive Level: Application Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment Nursing Process: Assessment 3. The nurse is caring for four clients on a medical–surgical unit. The secretary gives the nurse the morning labs. Which of the following labs would require that the nurse call the physician and inform the healthcare provider about the client’s abnormalities? 1. WBC 14,600 mm3 2. Serum protein 6.9 g/dL 3. I & D (incision and drainage) showing no growth for the last 24 hours 4. Albumin 4.2 g/dL Answer: 1 Rationale: When the nurse is caring for several clients, all of the labs should be checked frequently throughout the shift to assess for any abnormalities. The WBC in option 1 is abnormal. (Normal WBC 4,000–10,000 mm3 .) All of the other lab results are within acceptable range; therefore, the results should not be called in to the physician. Cognitive Level: Application Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity Nursing Process: Assessment 4. The nurse is orienting a new graduate. The nurse is reinforcing the importance of standard precautions. Which of the following observations by the nurse would require further education regarding standard precautions? 1. The graduate nurse understands to wash hands when entering and exiting the client’s room. 2. The graduate nurse wears gloves when serving breakfast trays to various clients. 3. The graduate nurse wears a gown, gloves, and goggles when suctioning a client. 4. The graduate nurse leaves all supplies in the room of a client who is in contact isolation. Answer: 2 Rationale: The nurse must have an understanding of standard precautions. Prevention is the most important measure to prevent nosocomial infections. Standard precautions were published in 1996 that provide guidelines for the handling of download full file at http://testbankinstant.com blood and other body fluids. These guidelines are used with all clients, regardless of whether they have a known infectious disease. Standard precautions are used by all healthcare workers who have direct contact with clients or with their body fluids. It is not necessary for the nurse to wear gloves while delivering food trays to the client, because there is not contact with the client. Cognitive Level: Application Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment Nursing Process: Evaluation 5. The admitting department alerts the nurse on a medical–surgical unit that a client with active tuberculosis (TB) is being admitted to the unit. Which type of isolation is appropriate based on the client’s diagnosis? 1. Standard precautions 2. Airborne precautions 3. Droplet precautions 4. Contact precautions Answer: 2 In addition to handwashing and standard precautions, the nature and spread of some infectious diseases require that special techniques be used to protect uninfected clients and workers. The client with pulmonary tuberculosis will be placed in airborne precautions. The client should be placed in a private room with special ventilation that does not allow air to circulate to general hospital ventilation; a mask or special filter respirators will be used for everyone entering the room. Cognitive Level: Application Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment Nursing Process: Assessment 6. A client is receiving IV vancomycin for the treatment of Clostridium difficile. The nurse understands that the client who develops flushing, tachycardia, and hypotension during the infusion of vancomycin indicates: 1. Ototoxicity effect. 2. Superinfection. 3. Red man syndrome. 4. Hives. Answer: 3 download full file at http://testbankinstant.com Rationale: Vancomycin inhibits cell wall synthesis, and is used for serious infections. It is only effective against gram-positive bacteria, especially Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis. The nurse should infuse this medication slowly over 60 minutes or more to avoid “red man” syndrome. The syndrome is characterized by erythematous rash, flushing, tachycardia, and hypotension. Clients can become dizzy and agitated. Cognitive Level: Application Client Needs: Physiological Integrity Nursing Process: Evaluation 7. The physician has ordered for the client to receive a trough blood level to evaluate the therapeutic effect of an antibiotic. The nurse understands that the trough should be ordered: 1. A few minutes before the next scheduled dose of medication. 2. 1–2 hours after the oral administration of the medication. 3. 30 minutes after the IV administration. 4. During the infusion of the antibiotic. Answer: 1 Rationale: Antibiotic peak and trough levels monitor therapeutic blood levels of the prescribed medication. The therapeutic range—the minimum and maximum blood levels at which the drug is effective—is known for a given drug. By measuring blood levels at the predicted peak (1–2 hours after oral administration, 1 hour after intramuscular administration, and 30 minutes after IV administration) and trough (usually a few minutes before the next scheduled dose), it is also possible to determine whether the drug is reaching a toxic or harmful level during therapy, increasing the likelihood of adverse effects. Cognitive Level: Application Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment Nursing Process: Assessment 8. The nurse needs to change a dressing on the client’s abdomen. Which of the following techniques should be implemented? 1. Contact precautions 2. Standard precautions 3. Droplet p Tex Teachers: 7.2 TNT 710 Overview of Texas Teacher Evaluation. Top Question with accurate answers, graded A
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